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> You have to buy your way into voting as a shareholder. In a democracy, it's just your given right as a citizen.

In a democratic country, only the people who have citizenship are allowed to vote. In a shareholders meeting, only the shareholders are allowed to vote.

You sometimes cam buy your way into citizenship. As a shareholder, it is your given right to vote in a shareholders meeting.



Even if you think there's no qualitative difference between the 2 (which I think is a deeply immature idea, but whatever), there's an obvious quantitative difference: In practice democratic voting power is much more socioeconomically spread and shared than shareholder voting power.


Shareholders receive power proportionate to their buying power. Citizens get a single vote.

> You sometimes cam buy your way into citizenship. As a shareholder, it is your given right to vote in a shareholders meeting.

Maybe - depending on your jurisdiction. Just like whether you have citizenship or not.


> Shareholders receive power proportionate to their buying power. Citizens get a single vote.

Historically, there did exist experiments that not each person has the same voting power (for example the Prussian "Dreiklassenwahlrecht" [three-class franchise]):

> https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dreiklassenwahlrecht

Depending on the amount of taxes you paid, you were assigned to one of three classes. The sizes of each of these classes were chosen so that each class paid 1/3 of the whole tax volume. The votes in each class elected representants for this class.

The idea is obvious: those who pay a lot more taxes should have more influence.

Thus: each citizen has the same voting power is just the "currently fashionable" implementation of democracy.


Likewise, there are companies with classes of stock, each with different voting rights.

But at this point we are simply discussing semantics.




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