I’d probably assume somebody looked at “15% interest” as a sales pitch and “losing all of your money” as the actual thing that happened and concluded that it was fraud.
The "intent" that is necessary is the intent to benefit from the known misrepresentation, which in this case Stablegains did by obtaining investment from these customers.
It would be ludicrous to suggest that Stabelgains needed to "intend" the end result (ie, "catastrophically fail and lose all of their customers funds") for it to be fraud.
What exactly is fraud by your estimation?