All stockholders have a "voting stake" in a company. C-level execs may get a lot more shares, but their voting power is tiny compared to the institutional investors. Board of Directors have voting power, but often token salaries.
But you said it's the difference between "upper middle class" and rich? So I ask again, what's the cut off?
Even among those making over 200k, there’s a qualitative difference between needing to work and being able to live off passive income. To say someone making 500k a year has more in common with someone who has immense generational wealth just misses the point. The political incentives are different.
I’m obviously aware that all shareholders have a voting stake - but most of their stakes are so small as to be negligible.
But you said it's the difference between "upper middle class" and rich? So I ask again, what's the cut off?