>Disposable income (except confusingly on some US tax forms) does not account for private healthcare expenses (the figure that is post other necessary expenses like health insurance is called discretionary income).
You've already been called out for claiming that the US "doesn't have unemployment benefits"; when challenged your response was more or less "feelz over realz". No matter how often you try to claim that using median income would invalidate OP's point, as I and others keep telling you, it does not. "since healthcare costs should be more or less constant regardless of your income bracket, it would likely be a huge chunk of the median disposable income figure" doesn't even attempt to be coherent. Please stop.
Go to Appendix B and have a look at the table if you're in a hurry.
I'll give you a chance to re-phrase the thoughts in the latter half of your post in a more polite manner, since I have been patient and am prepared to be so a while longer. I'm not looking forward to this conversation degrading in that way.
As I already stated, the OECD definition of disposable income (https://stats.oecd.org/glossary/detail.asp?ID=46) explicitly accounts for "social transfers in kind", in both directions.
You've already been called out for claiming that the US "doesn't have unemployment benefits"; when challenged your response was more or less "feelz over realz". No matter how often you try to claim that using median income would invalidate OP's point, as I and others keep telling you, it does not. "since healthcare costs should be more or less constant regardless of your income bracket, it would likely be a huge chunk of the median disposable income figure" doesn't even attempt to be coherent. Please stop.