is there that much of a difference? how much? poster used the word "accent" but to my mind that includes regional variations in the language, not just the sonics.
One thing that jumps out in this sentence is that, grammatically, AAVE uses negative concords (double (or more) negatives), like Spanish or French, instead of the "standard" English "not any", etc. (which I forget the name of.)
Interestingly, double negatives were standard in English up until about 200 years ago, when English speakers wanted their language to be more like Latin-- that is, civilized and refined. So they changed it.
In SAE, one would say something like "Sam is walking that route to the store and does so regularly."
In AAVE, an equivalent statement would be "Sam be walking to the store that way."
The habitual quality of the action is what would allow for the use of the habitual be. One would not say it for an activity that is only expected to happen once.
To further illustrate, in SAE you'd say "He's dying."
In AAVE, you would not say "He be dying." because it's not habitual.
There are many others but I think this is one of the easiest to explain.
Incidentally Latin also employs a habitual verb form in the imperfect tense. For example the imperfect ambulabam (was walking): "He was walking to the store" can mean "He was in the habit of walking", perhaps more informally "he used to walk" or "he would walk".
I'm not able to locate the links, but I've read that academic studies of twitter users misclassified AAVE-speakers as "non-English speakers" with sufficient ubiquity as to nearly or completely exclude black Americans from the supposedly inclusive studies.